SBI Clerk 2018 Prelims Exam Previous Year Question Paper – Memory-based examination

Memory-based examination जिसमें तीन खंड होते हैं जैसे कि Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, and English language. इन विषयों से संबंधित समस्याओं को हल करने में एक अच्छा हाथ पाने के लिए, उम्मीदवारों को कई mock tests और previous year question papers का अभ्यास करना चाहिए जो वे कर सकते हैं। इस article में उसी विषय-वार पिछले वर्ष के प्रश्नपत्रों के लिंक दिए गए हैं।

English Language

Directions (Q 1-8): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error any, will be in one part of the sentence, the alphabetical code of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e).

1) Now onwards, all the donations that come (a)/to the organization will be accounted to (b)/ in the balance sheet and details of the donors (c)/ will also be recorded in separate file (d)/ no error(e).

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e

2) It seems that, the Global sales of the leading pharmaceutical (a)/ company will continue to grow even (b)/ after the expiry of its patent, although the company has been (c)/ tried hard to get its patent renewed (d)/ no error(e).

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e

3) On the last few weeks (a)/, across the country, the price of species (b)/ has fallen sharply as the people have (c)/ become health conscious and prefer mild food (d)/ no error(e).

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e

4) Report says, the financial institutions are (a)/ directed to increase the interest (b)/ rate in order to control the (c)/ supply of money at market and economy (d)/ no error (e).

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e

5) The last page of passport will be left (a)/ blank as the ministry of external affairs has decided (b)/ that the name of father, spouse or legal guardian will no longer (c)/ be printing on the last page of passport (d)/ no error (e).

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e

6) Responding to a series of question, the (a)/ official said that Indian motorcycles that (b)/ are imported in the US don’t (c)/have any tariffs on them (d)/ no error(e).

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e

7) With the summer holidays round the area one (a)/ of the things that parents are looking (b)/ for is the space where they (c)/ can take their children for holidays (d)/ no error(e).

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e

8) Even though tax-saving financial products (a)/ help you save tax for the current year, the (b)/interest income becomes atax (c)/ liability each year to the end of the tenure (d)/ no error (e).

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e

Directions (9-13): In each of the question given below a/an idiom/phrase is given in bold which is then followed by five options which then tries to decipher its meaning as used in the sentence. Choose the option which gives the meaning of the phrase most appropriately in context of the given sentence.

9) I can’t believe that stupid dance is all the rage right now.

a. happening
b. popular
c. widespread
d. overtaking
e. groovy

10) It is clear that he is going to bear away the palm in this contest.

a. cheat
b. participate
c. win
d. lose
e. cheer

11) The authorities decided to cumber with my project by not allocating sufficient funds.

a. postpone
b. hinder
c. destroy
d. terminate
e. curb

12) You should make a clean breast of the matter to someone.

a. apologise
b. hide
c. regret
d. confess
e. investigate

13) He has developed a bad habit to diddle everyone.

a. annoy
b. irritate
c. ridicule
d. prank
e. deceive

Directions (14- 18): In each of the following sentences there is one blank space. Below each sentence there are four words denoted by a), b), c) d) and e). Find one word that to be fitted in it

14) Masked men______ a security van on the motorway.

a. held forth
b. held up
c. held on
d. held out
e. None of these


15)
The noise of the drum beats______ and frightened the tiger.

a) pertained
b) persisted
c) perplexed
d) prevented
e). None of these

16) If you do well in this exam next year then my efforts_______ successful.

a) has been
b) have been
c) will be
d) would have been
e). None of these

17) We_______ not hurry, we have got plenty of time.

a. would
b. must
c. need
d. should
e. None of these

18) He set up institutions of international ———-

a. renown
b. famous
c. reputation
d. repute
e. None of these

Directions (19- 25): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

The first and most important step to effective financial planning is developing and implementing a budget. That, of course, sounds easy and even simplistic. But it’s more difficult than it seems. Budgeting simply means to live within one’s financial means.

You have a limited amount of money to spend each month, so you need to separate your needs from your wants. Your ―needs‖ usually include housing, utilities, food and clothing, medical facilities — the things you can’t live without. Once your needs are taken care of, any remaining money can go to unnecessary ―wants‖ — those items that are nice to have, but not required to live. They usually include things like cable TV, Internet service, restaurant meals, cell phones with many features, etc.

You need to be careful not to confuse wants and needs. A very common reason people get into serious debt is by failing to live within their means. They use credit to supplement their wants, but eventually this will cause financial trouble. Like our family budget, the nation’s General Budget has two major parts: Revenue and Expenditure.

Assessing the revenues from different central taxes is the primary function of the Department of Revenue and the expenditure estimates for the current and the next year for various expenditure heads are assessed by the Department of Expenditure. The Department of Expenditure also assesses the resources of the public sector undertakings (PSUs).

The Budget division is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs. The Finance Secretary coordinates the overall Budgetmaking process. All of them keep the finance minister informed and seek directions from time to time. The Chief Economic Advisor aids the concerned departmental officer in this process.

Leaving aside the tax receipts, the other sources of the revenue which go into the Budget are the dividends paid by the PSUs on the government shareholdings, including the interim dividends and the capital receipts on account of the divestment of the government share holdings.

Besides external receipts on account borrowing from international agencies like World Bank, ADB, etc, are also estimated and included in the assessment of the gross budgetary resources of various programmes under various ministries. For the expenditure side, various ministries providing initial estimates of plan and non-plan expenditures. The ministries discuss the plan expenditures with the Planning Commission. The Planning commission allocates resources for continuing plan programme. After the estimation of income and expenditure of the government the concept revenue deficit is brought into focus to discuss as it cause of major concern to the Government of India. Revenue deficit indicates the excess of expenditure over receipts in the revenue budget of the government. Revenue deficit means the government is not able to finance its day to day expenses or what we call the current expenditure out of its normal revenue sources like taxes.

In India, the central government’s budget had a surplus until 1977. But in 1978 budget, revenue deficit appeared for the first time. Since then there is revenue deficit in all years and the government is borrowing to finance the revenue deficit.

Borrowing this year to finance revenue deficit will create interest payments in future (which is revenue expenditure). Increasing borrowing – interest payments – revenue deficit- borrowing explains the vicious circle of debt for the government. In this way, interest payment became the largest expenditure item for the government

A high revenue deficit gives a warning signal to the government to either curtail its expenditure or increase its revenue. The government missing its fiscal deficit target for the year means that either the revenue it collected fell short of projections, or that its expenditure was higher than planned.

On the other hand it can be said that the revenue deficit can be controlled by government by reducing its expenditure and by increasing it receipts from the various sources of tax.

Data for the first eight months of 2017-18 show that the government’s revenue deficit has widened at an alarming pace. Revenue deficit is the gap between the government’s revenue expenditure and revenue receipts. While revenue expenditure increased in April-November 2017 by over 13 per cent over the same period of 2016, the government’s revenue receipts increased by less than 2 per cent.

19) According to the passage who supports the different departments in budget making process?

a. Foreign secretary of India
b. Chairman of CBDT
c. Governor of central bank
d. Auditor general
e. Chief economic advisor

20) According to the passage who evaluates the resources of public sector undertakings?

a. Revenue department
b. Government of India
c. Expenditure department
d. Department of economic affairs
e. Planning commission

21) According to the passage, what does the revenue deficit point out?

a. Excess of borrowing
b. Excess of expenditure
c. Excess of interest rate
d. Excess of taxes
e. Excess of revenue

22) According to passage, which of the following will not be considered as needs?

a. Medicine
b. Clothing
c. Food
d. Cell phone
e. Housing

23) According to the passage, if the government is not able to manage its fiscal deficit target, what does itindicate?

a. More revenue collection
b. Less revenue collection
c. Excess of borrowing
d. Shortage of borrowing
e. Less expenditure

24) According to the passage, except taxes, what are the other sources of revenue which go into the budget?

a. Interest on domestic borrowing
b. Foreign exchange reserves
c. Dividends and interim dividends
d. Capital expenditure
e. Capital reserve

25) Choose the word which as opposite meaning as the word‖ widened”

a. Extended
b. Expanded
c. Amplify
d. Enlarged
e. Abridged


Directions (26- 30):Make meaningful sentences using the given sets of words, Starting of the sentence which was highlighted will remain in same position.

26) I am writing / banking system (A)/ your Telephone (B) / complain (C)/ about (D) / No correction Required (E)

a) ADBC
b) BCAD
c) DACB
d) CDBA
e) No correction Required

27) My family / been my biggest (A)/ support (B) / system (C)/ has always (D) / No correction Required(E)

a) ADBC
b) BCAD
c) DABC
d) CDBA
e) No correction Required

28) We gave all the / scraps that (A) / to throw away (B)/ to the geese (C) / were ready (D)/ No correction Required(E) We gave all the scraps that were ready to throw away to the geese.

a) ADBC
b) BCAD
c) DACB
d) CDBA
e) No correction Required

29) David is /strolling across (A) /a field (B) /one sunny (C) /morning (D)/ No correction Required (E)

a) ADBC
b) BCAD
c) DACB
d) CDBA
e) No correction Required

30) Cruising in the / we could see (A) / glass bottomed boat (B) / of fish(C) / many kinds (D) / No correction Required(E)

a) ADBC
b) BADC
c) DACB
d) CDBA
e) No correction Required

Answer Key:

1) Answer is: b)

Explanation: ―For‖ will be used in place of ―to‖

The correct phrase is ―account for‖ and it means ―to explain‖ so ―for‖ will be used

Correct sentence: Now onwards, all the donations that come to the organization will be accounted for in the balance sheet and details of the donors will also be recorded in separate file.

2) Answer is: d)

Explanation: ―trying‖ will be used in place of ―tried―

As the second part of sentence is in present continuous so ―trying― will be used.

Correct sentence: It seems that, the Global sales of the leading pharmaceutical company will continue to grow even after the expiry of its patent, although the company has been trying hard to get its patent renewed.

3) Answer is: a)

Explanation: “over‖ will be used in place of ―on―

Over is used to indicate ―during‖ also so ―over‖ will be used.

Correct sentence: Over the last few weeks, across the country, the price of species has fallen sharply as the people have become health conscious and prefer mild food.


4)
Answer is: d)

Explanation: ―in‖ will be used in place of ―at―

―in‖ will be used because ― in― is used to indicate the location or place.

Correct sentence: Report says, the financial institutions are directed to increase the interest rate in order to control the supply of money in market and economy.

5) Answer is: d)

Explanation: ―printed‖ will be used in place of ―printing‖

As the second part of sentence is based on passive voice so third form of verb will be use that is ―printed‖

Correct sentence: The last page of passport will be left blank as the ministry of external affairs has decided that the name of father, spouse or legal guardian will no longer be printed on the last page of passport.

6) Answer is: c)

Explanation: ―into‖ will be used in place of ―in‖

The preposition into means ―movement toward the inside of something‖ so ―into‖ will be used.

Correct Sentence: Responding to a series of question, the official said that Indian motorcycles that are imported into the US don’t have any tariffs on them.

7) Answer is: a)

Explanation: ―corner‖ will be used in place of ―area‖

The correct phrase is ―round the corner‖ which means ―very near here‖ so ―corner‖ will be used.

Correct Sentence: With the summer holidays round the corner one of the things that parents are looking for is the space where they can take their children for holidays.

8) Answer is: d)

Explanation: ―till‖ will be used in place of ―to‖

According to the sentence ―till‖ will be used as it means ―up to‖.

Correct Sentence: Even though tax-saving financial products help you save tax for the current year, the interest income becomes a tax liability each year till the end of the tenure

9) Answer: B

All the rage means to be very popular.

10) Answer: C

Bear away the palm means to win.

11) Answer: B

Cumber with means to hamper; hinder.

12) Answer: D

To make a clean breast of something means to admit or to confess.

13) Answer: E

Diddle somebody means to deceive or to cheat.

14) b

15) c

16) c

17) c

18) d

19) Answer is: e

Explanation: It is clearly mentioned in the passage that chief economic advisor assists the ministers of different department at the time of budget preparation.

20) Answer is: c)

Explanation: According to the passage it is clearly mentioned that department of expenditure assesses the resources of public sector undertaking.

21) Answer is: b)

Explanation: According to the passage, the revenue deficit has pointed out the excess of expenditure than requirement.

22) Answer is :d)

Explanation: According to the passage, needs include those things which are necessary for survival of humans and cellphone is not included in that.

23) Answer is: b)

Explanation: it is clearly mentioned in the passage, that if the government is not able to manage its fiscal deficit target, it means there is shortage of revenue collection.

24) Answer is: c)

Explanation: According to the passage, it is clearly mentioned that dividends and interim dividends are the other sources of revenue which go into the budget.

25) Answer is: e)

Explanation: the meaning of the word ―widened‖ is ―make wider‖ and it opposite is ―abridged‖

26) Answer: D

I am writing complain about your Telephone banking system

27) Answer: C

My family has always been my biggest support system.

28) Answer: A

We gave all the scraps that were ready to throw away to the geese.

29) Answer: E

David is strolling across a field one sunny morning.

30) Answer: B

Cruising in the glass bottomed boat we could see many kinds of fish.

Numerical Ability

Direction (1-5): What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

1). 18, 8, 6, 9, 32, ?.

a) 256
b) 284
c) 251
d) 249
e) 320

2). 1, 244, 163, 190, 181, ?.

a) 188
b) 198
c) 178
d) 184
e) 191

3). 250, ?, 190, 167, 148, 131.

a) 219
b) 222
c) 221
d) 218
e) 215

4). 36, 18, 6, 3, 1, ?.

a) 0.4
b) 0.25
c) 0.2
d) 0.33
e) 0.5

5). 18, 29, 42, 53, ?.

a) 70
b) 66
c) 72
d) 69
e) 80

Direction (6-15): What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

6). [(36 × 75) ÷ 15 – 2520 ÷ 120] = 3 ×?

a) 72
b) 53
c) 66
d) 48
e) None of these

7). 172 × (853 – 340) ÷ 19 = ? – 720

a) 4576
b) 6128
c) 5364
d) 3780
e) None of these

8). (35 % of 75000) ÷? = (125 % of 300) × 2

a) 60
b) 45
c) 35
d) 20
e) None of these

9). (4/15) of 393 + (7/12) of 468 = ? × 4

a) 107.25
b) 94.45
c) 82.65
d) 78.35
e) None of these

10). 42 % of 1250 + 15 % of ? = 1113

a) 3920
b) 4160
c) 3350
d) 3780
e) None of these

11). √8281 ÷ 7 + 63 =? – 25785 ÷ 9

a) 2941
b) 2785
c) 2513
d) 2147
e) None of these

12). 28 % of 3540 + 267 % of 4500 + 24 % of 5060 =?

a) 14220. 6
b) 13450. 8
c) 11780. 4
d) 15670. 5
e) None of these

13). (6390 ÷ 15) + (7182 ÷ 19) + (10224 ÷ 8) =? – 24 % of 750

a) 2534
b) 2262
c) 2876
d) 3148
e) None of these

14). (4/7) of ? – (5/7) of (91/40) of 3656 = 26 % of 1850

a) 17852. 6
b) 11238. 5
c) 15724. 8
d) 13421. 7
e) None of these

15). (1256 ÷ 4) × (138 ÷ 3) = 810 ÷ 3 +?

a) 27895
b) 35621
c) 22782
d) 14174
e) None of these


Directions (16–20): Given below is the pie chart which shows the percentage distribution of the students studying in different subjects.

16). If 20% of the students studying Mathematics and 40% of students studying English are female students. Then what is the total number of male students studying both English and Mathematics?

a) 90
b) 67
c) 63
d) 72
e) 68

17). What is the average number of students studying Chemistry, Computer and Physics subjects?

a) 70
b) 72
c) 68
d) 66
e) 71

18). If 75% of students studying Chemistry are appeared in the exam and 80% of students were passed the exam out of the students appeared. Then how many students failed in the exam?

a) 10
b) 9
c) 11
d) 8
e) 13

19). If the ratio of males and females in the Computer studying students is 4:3. Then what is the difference between the male and female in Computer students?

a) 12
b) 28
c) 7
d) 14 

e) 13

20). What is the difference between the number of students studying Physics and English together and the number ofstudents studying Chemistry and Computer together?

a) 34
b) 54
c) 35
d) 32
e) 33

Directions (21-25): In each questions, two equations numbered I and II have been given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option.

if x>y (b) if x ≥ y (c) if x<y (d) if x ≤ y (e) if x = y or no relationship can be established.

21).

I. x2 + 6x + 9 = 0
II. y2 – y – 20 = 0

22).

I. x2 – 10x + 24 = 0
II. 2y2 – 3y – 35 = 0

23).

I. X2 – 7X = -12
II. Y = √16

24).

I. 4×2 – 9x – 34 = 0
II. y2 + 20y + 51 = 0

25).

I. x2 + 361 = 442
II. y + √289 = √676

Directions (26–30): Each question contains Quantity I and Quantity II. Read the contents clearly and answer your questions accordingly.

a) Quantity I > Quantity II
b) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
c) Quantity II > Quantity I
d) Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

26). Quantity I: The SI on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 5 % per annum is Rs. 4800. Then the principle is?
Quantity II: The CI on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 6 % per annum is Rs. 3708. Then the principle is?

27). Quantity I: 3 years ago, the ratio of age of A and B is 3: 4. After 2 years, the sum of their ages is 45. Then find the present age of A?
Quantity II: 5 years ago, the ratio of age of P and Q is 3: 4. P’s age after 6 years is equal to the present age of Q. Then find the present age of P?

28). Quantity I: If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% while the breadth of the rectangle is decreased by 10% then find percentage change in area of the rectangle?
Quantity II: If the breadth of a triangle is increased by 30 % while the height of a triangle is decreased by 20 %, then find the percentage change in area of the triangle?

29). Quantity I: Raji can swim at 6 km/hr in still water. The river flows at 3 km/hr and it takes 8 hours more upstream than downstream for the same distance. How far is the place?
Quantity II: A man can row 25 km/hr in still water and the river is running at 15 km/hr. If the man takes 2 hr to row to a place and back, how far is the place?

30). Quantity I: There are three numbers in the ratio 5: 6: 10. The sum of the largest and the smallest numbers is 126 more than the other number. Find the largest number?
Quantity II: 12 % of first number is equal to 25 % of second number. The difference of these two numbers is 78. Then find the largest number?

31). Four years ago, the ratio between the age of Ram and Shyam was 4:9 respectively. Sita is 5 years older than Ram. Sita is 5 years younger than Shyam. What is Sita’s present age?

a) 17 years
b) 20 years
c) 23 years
d) 24 years
e) 25 years

32). Rakesh Gangwal and Rahul Bhatia invested in a business in the ratio 10:13. What is the total profit, if Rahul Bhatia’s profit share is Rs.832 and 8% of the total profit goes to charity?

a) Rs.1400
b) Rs.1500
c) Rs.1600
d) Rs.1700
e) Rs.1800

33). The length of train A is 320 metres and that of train B is 415 metres. Train A travelling at a speed of 55 kmphcrosses train B travelling in opposite direction in 21 seconds. What is the speed of trainB?

a) 62 kmph
b) 53 kmph
c) 80 kmph
d) 71 kmph
e) 75 kmph

34). A man rows to a place 40 km distance and come back in 9 hours. He finds that he can row 5 km with the stream inthe same time as 4 km against the stream. The rate of the stream is?

a) 1 km/hr
b) 1.5 km/hr
c) 2 km/hr
d) 2.5 km/hr
e) None of these

35). The area of rectangle is 1.5 times of the area of the square. Length of rectangle is 3 times its breadth. If side of square is 15m. What is the perimeter of the rectangle?

a) 31.8 m
b) 42.4 m
c) 75.6 m
d) 84.8 m
e) 78.8 m

Answer Key:

1).c

2).d

3).a

4).e

5).b

6).b

7).c

8).c

9).b

10).a

11).a

12).a

13).b

14).b

15).d

16).c

17).a

18).b

19).d

20).e

21).e

22).e

23).d

24).a

25).d

26).a

27).c

28).a

29).a

30).c

31).a

32).c

33).d

34).a

35).d

Reasoning Ability

Directions (1-5):Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel Row-1 and Row-2 with equi-distance between each other and facing each other. In Row-1 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting and facing north. In Row-2 P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting and facing south but not necessarily in the same order.

E sits third from the extreme end of the row. Q sits second to the right of the person who sits opposite to E. Two people sit between Q and S. A and B are immediate neighbour of E. S does not faces A. R sits opposite to D. Two people sit between R and T. T is not an immediate neighbour of S.P does not sit at extreme end of the row. C does not face Q and not an immediate neighbour of D.

1). Who sits second to the left of E?

a) C
b) F
c) B
d) D
e) None of these

2). How many persons sits between S and U?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of these

3). Who is second to the right of the person who sits opposite to A?

a) P
b) Q
c) R
d) T
e) U

4). Four of the five among the following are similar in such a way to form a group, which one of the following does not belongs to the group?

a) U, F
b) Q, A
c) P, B
d) S, C
e) T, E

5). Which of the following is not correct?

I) Two persons sits between C and E
II) Q sits opposite to F
III) R sits immediate right of S

a) Only I
b) Only II and III
c) Only I and III
d) Only III
e) All are correct

Direction (6-10): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below.

236 458 684 536 735

6). If all the digits in the numbers are arranged in descending order from right to left, then all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right. Then which of the following number will be third from the left end?

a) 536
b) 468
c) 735
d) 458
e) None of these

7). If the first and third digits of the numbers are interchanged, then which of the following will be fourth smallest number in the given series?

a) 485
b) 263
c) 536
d) 684
e) None of these

8). What will be the product of the third digit of the smallest number and second digit of the second highest number?

a) 30
b) 18
c) 48
d) 36
e) 32

9). What is the difference of third highest and fifth smallest number?

a) 299
b) 319
c) 189
d) 199

10). If third digit of each number is increased by 2, then how many digits are repeated in that number?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) More than three
e) None

Direction (11-13): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Five boxes A, B, C, D and E is arranged in a shelves such that bottom most shelf is numbered one, the shelf above is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost shelf is numbered 5. Only one box is placed in each shelf.

The box C is placed in odd number shelf. Only one box is placed between box C and box B, which is placed below box C. As many boxes placed between box A and box D is same as between box B and box E. Box E is placed above B but not immediately above. The box D is placed below box A.

11). How many boxes are placed between box A and box D?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) None
e)Cannot be determined

12). Which of the following boxes is placed just above D?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) Data in sufficient
e) None

13). Which of the following box is placed in shelf number 4?

a) D
b) E
c) F
d) B
e) A

Direction (14-16): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Point P is 10m to the north of Point Q. Anu starts walking from point Q 20m towards east direction to reach point X and then she walks 8m in south direction to reach point E.Then she turns left and walks 15m to stop at point L.

Abi starts walking 10m towards east direction from point P to reach at point D. Then she take right turn and reach at point F after walking 5m.Then she walk 15m towards east direction to reach at point G. Then she took right and walks 5m to reach at point M. Finally she walks 10m towards east direction and stop at point K.

14). Which of the following points are in straight line?

a) Q, G, K
b) E, X, D
c) X, M, K
d) E, L, G
e) None of these

15). The point G is in which direction with respect to point Q?

a)North
b)West
c)Southeast
d)Northeast
e)None of these

16). What is the shortest distance between X and G?

a) 5√2 m
b) 2√5 m
c) √48 m
d) 8 m
e)Cannot be determined


Direction (17-19): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Seven persons H, J, K, L, M, N and O are from same family but three different generations. M is the son of H. L is son of O, who is married to M. K has only one child. L is the grandson of N. O and J is siblings. J is the son of N. K is a married male.

17). How L is related to J?

a) Niece
b) Nephew
c) Father
d) Uncle
e) Cannot be determined

18). If X is son of J, then how O is related to X?

a) Nephew
b) Mother
c) Uncle
d) Aunt
e) None of these

19). How K is related to L?

a) Grandson
b) Grandfather
c) Uncle
d) Mother
e) None of these

Direction(20-21): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain coding language,

“Sunday way his write” is written as “dil qzi cpx psr”

“way his profile holiday” is written as “xhm psr str qzi”

“Profile to for School back” is written as “oiz cmd xhm eji wza” and

“To for his Sunday moon” is written as “eji psr cmd cpx sby”

20). Which of the following code for “Back”?

a)oiz
b)wza
c)dil
d) Either a or b
e) None of these

21).If “Tomorrow school is holiday” is written as “eghshkoizstr”, then which of the following is the code for “School”?

a)egh
b)oiz
c) shk
d)str
e) None of these

Direction (22-26): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were joined in a company in eight different years but same month and same date viz., 1954, 1993, 1982, 1978, 1949, 1972, 1989 and 1996 but not necessarily in the same order. Their experiences are calculated based on 2018 on same month and same date.

P was the most experienced in the group. Two persons were joined between P and Q. T was joined one of the even numbered years after Q. W‟s experience was two years more than that of twice the experience of R. Three person joined between W and U. S was joined before V.

22). When was V joined in a company?

a) 1982
b) 1949
c) 1972
d) 1989
e) None of these

23). How many persons were joined between U and S?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) More than Four

24). What is the sum the experience of W, V and R (in years)?

a) 98
b) 99
c) 97
d) 100
e) None of these

25). Four of the five among the following are similar in such a way to form a group, which one of the following does not belongs to the group?

a) P
b) S
c) W
d) Q
e) T

26). Who was joined just after P?

a) Q
b) S
c) P
d) T
e) None of these

27). If only one meaningful word can be formed by using 1st,5th, 7th and 9th letters only once of the word “ENFRANCHISEMENT”, then which is the second letter of the meaningful word? If no such word can be formed, then give „X‟ as the answer. If more than one word can be formed, then give „Y‟ as the answer.

a) A
b) C
c) X
d) Y
e) I

28). In the given number 857327439132, the position of first and second letter are interchanged, similarly the position of third and fourth letter are interchanged and so on till the end. Then, which of the following number will be third to the left of the number which is seventh from the left end?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 7
e) Cannot be determined

Direction (29-30): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Seven persons H, I, J, K, L, M and N are in different heights. H is shorter than at least three persons. I is taller than M. J is shorter than K. I is not the tallest person. K is not as much as height as H. J is not the shortest person. I is taller than N.

29). Who is the tallest person in the group?

a) H
b) J
c) M
d) L
e) Cannot be determined

30). If M‟s height is 162cm and the shortest person‟s height is 150cm, then what may be the possible height of J?

a) 148 cm
b) 155 cm
c) 166 cm
d) 168 cm
e) 149 cm

Direction (31-35): Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question and give answer.

a) Only Statement I is sufficient to answer
b) Only Statement II is sufficient to answer
c) Either Statement I or Statement II are sufficient to answer.
d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II are sufficient to answer.
e) Both Statement I and Statement II are sufficient to answer.

31). P, Q, R, S, and T are the five persons in the group. How many persons are taller than T?

Statement I: P is taller than Q, who was only shorter than P and T.
Statement II: R is shorter than P, who was shorter than T.

32). Among V, W, X, Y and Z seated in a straight line facing south, who sits at the extreme end of the row?

Statement I: W sits second to right of V. Z is not immediate neighbour of Y.
Statement II: V sits third to left of Y. W sits on the immediate right of X.

33). How is X related to N?

Statement I: X is mother of J. T is married to Z. N is daughter of T.Z is brother of J.
Statement II: X is married to Y. Y is father of J. J is married to L. J is uncle of N.

34). On which floor does C lives? If A, B, C, D, E are living in a building. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1 its above floor numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor of the building is numbered 5.

Statement I: A lives one of the floor below D, who lives in topmost floor.
Statement II: E lives two floors above C, who neither lives in third or second floor.

35). How many chocolate does Seetha has?

Statement I: Abi has 10 chocolates which is five more than Geetha. Seetha has 2 chocolates more than Swetha, who has 2 more than Geetha.
Statement II: Swetha has more chocolates than Geetha but less than Abi, who has 10 chocolates.

Answer Key:

1). b

2). c

3). e

4). d

5). d

6). c

7). a

8). c

9). d

10). b

11). b

12). c

13). b :

14). c

15). d

16). a

17). b

18). d

20).d

21). B

22). d

23). d

24). c

25). a

26). b

27). c

28). d

29). d L>I>M>H>K>J>N

30). b

31). e

32). e

33). c

34). b

35). a

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Scroll to Top